Hello all, A while back I asked if there was a way to share a connection between my JDBC code and JPA code. It was suggested that I open an transaction on the EM and then access the connection on the transaction. I'm sure this will work, but I need to do the opposite.
I have a code block that gets a JDBC connection, loops over some things and performs actions on one transaction per loop. In each loop some JPA action may take place on an EM. The problem is that the JDBC connection is in a transaction, and the queries run from the EM don't see the newly inserted records. I happen to be using a DataSource to supply OpenJPA with connections. The JDBC connection is available via a ThreadLocal variable (as is one and only one EM). I did a quick test where my DataSource simply provides a wrapper of the JDBC connection. I override the close() method to do nothing so the outer JDBC code is not killed. It works. The EM queries are performed on the same JDBC connection. Naturally, I do not expect OpenJPA to "join" the JDBC connection, nor do I expect to need to open a transaction on the EM in the loop. (Interestingly, though, it does not crash when I do so.) So given my simple test seems to work, I'm wondering if anyone can tell me if I'll run into some major trouble later. Am I playing with fire? Ultimately this is "transition" code from JDBC to JPA, but it may be around for a while. Thanks. -- Daryl Stultz _____________________________________ 6 Degrees Software and Consulting, Inc. http://www.6degrees.com http://www.opentempo.com mailto:daryl.stu...@opentempo.com
