Dear Friends, In that case - suppose a session with a *D52869941C38BC234**CD9A940429C403A * Id is already present in context B (forwarded from context C ). Now a new request with same jsessionID came to context A . Then context A forwarded the request to context B .then will it override the existing session Id.
(I don't know whether it is possible or not). I don't know whether two differenet session belongs to two different context can have a same sessionId or not?? I have another question -------------- If I comment the method - request.getsession(true) , in that case will there be any session?? Thanks, Ghosh On Fri, Jan 8, 2010 at 2:55 PM, Mark Thomas <ma...@apache.org> wrote: > On 08/01/2010 07:18, Arnab Ghosh wrote: > > I found that session created in A and B are different and invisible to > each > > other. But the session ID is same. I want to know is there any chance of > > overriding existing session in context B?? Is it a mere coincidence or is > > there any logic behind this same session Id scenario?? > > It is by design. If a session cookie is received but the session does > not exist a new session is created using the ID from the cookie. > > Mark > > > > --------------------------------------------------------------------- > To unsubscribe, e-mail: users-unsubscr...@tomcat.apache.org > For additional commands, e-mail: users-h...@tomcat.apache.org > >
