The other reason for the disposition of the pair, and one which I think
is more significant, is that the string struck first with the thumb
tends to predominate. So that on the lute, where a more procrustean
adherence to the rules of counterpoint/voice leading might have been
expected, it is the bass (the lower) of the octave pair which
predominates whereas on the guitar with its peculiar tuning, the upper
of the pair tends to be heard primarily thus allowing an ambiguity
which can deceive the ear.
Would it have been the aim to deceive the ear?
Ambiguity, yes. But no doubt it can be heard (and played) as belonging to
the lower voice.
I'm really not convinced about selecting which octave of a pair to
pluck, not so much that it can't be done - it clearly can - though with
trouble if the passage is rapid, but on the basis that there seems to
be no evidence that this was early practice.
That would only matter if we would try to completely eliminate the unwanted
note. Selecting just one of the two strings is perhaps not what it was all
about.
Lex
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