On Mon, Feb 22, 2010 at 9:46 AM, Kuba Kucharski <kuba.kuchar...@gmail.com>wrote:
> I think short answer is this is allowed. > > http://osdir.com/ml/web2py/2009-09/msg01859.html > > -- > Kuba > > You are right. But I still have doubts. The way I see it if company X is selling access to some SaaS application. Let's say an on-line personal finance manager, and changes nothing in the web2py code: * it is not redistributing anything (web2py or app) * It is not claiming to have built web2py * It is charging money for usage of the personal finance functionality. Is it clear to the user it's not charging money for the framework? I think so. Because, from the user's point of view, it seems irrelevant which is the underlying framework. Let's say that company X contracted someone (me? :-) to develop their app. For company X it's clear that web2py is GPL'ed that they are only paying for the app code. I'm not a lawyer and I suppose most of you are not too, but what is your view on this. Also, I would like to mention that I addressed this post to Massimo because, being the original author, I suppose he his in a good position to clarify this question. But I think, this could be a relevant subject to other people in the community. Miguel -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "web2py-users" group. To post to this group, send email to web...@googlegroups.com. To unsubscribe from this group, send email to web2py+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com. For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/web2py?hl=en.
