The practice that I am going to describe is quite common in our community but I am not 
sure it is acceptable.  I wanted the opinion of the experts on this list.

Occassionally, we run into a problem with a patient who seems to be doctor hopping and 
getting multiple prescriptions for narcotics.  In order for the patient's principle 
physician to keep a close watch on the patient's use of narcotics and to avoid 
abuse/misuse of narcotics, the physician makes a deal with the patient.  The deal is 
"ALL prescriptions for narcotics must be funneled through one doctor-the primary care 
physician."  The patient usually agrees but then (and here is where I am not sure if 
we are infringing on privacy)we can send an "Alert" to all the area pharmacies to 
alert them that this deal occurred and if the patient shows up at one of the area 
pharmacies with a narcotic prescription from someone other than the primary care 
physician, the patient is told that they have an order that they can not fill the 
prescription unless it comes from the designated doctor.  

Is this practice acceptable?  Do we need the patient's consent to notify all 
heighborhood pharmacies?  Is verbal consent acceptable?  Can the information be sent 
to the pharmacies without the patient's specific consent  (that is, the patient 
consented to the arrangement that one doctor fills all narcotic prescriptions but the 
patient did not consent to the information being sent to all area pharmacies? )

Thank you
Rich Fairley, M.D.

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