Fr. Michael Gilmary wrote:
But Philip ... isn't that precisely the *opposite* of "inclusive"? It seems to be the same with so-called "inclusive" language (this, I believe is a very recent English-speaking phenomenon): in fact, it actually /divides/ male and female rather than including them together under some universal term. This, however, is the limit of our language that needs to be accepted. I don't think it can be changed.
Well, let us not get into "inclusive language", since I am still a dinosaur who writes and thinks "Chairman", "fireman", "actress", "waitress" and so on :-)
Speaking from experience, in the world of Catholic parishes, when there was /one/ liturgical language for Roman rite Catholics (Latin), one could go anywhere in the world and find a prayer by which to commune with others. Not uncommon in wartime (esp. in Europe) a soldier from one army could serve Mass for a chaplain from the opposing army --- it wasn't unknown to happen. Interesting, no? Now, to illustrate the point from present time, in typical parishes here in the US, you'll find the English (i.e., American) Mass, the Spanish Mass, the Polish, Vietnamese, etc. Whatever benefits it brings, it certainly /divides/ the community in one parish, since the English speaking parishioners are unlikely ever to attend the Vietnamese Mass.
But Father, when all the Catholic world used the Latin Mass, how many of the congregation in England, let alone Latin America, China, Vietnam or the Belgian Congo, had more than the faintest idea exactly what "Pater noster, qui es in caelis, sanctificetur nomen tuum. Adveniat regnum tuum. Fiat voluntas tua, sicut in caelo et in terra. Panem nostrum quotidianum da nobis hodie, et dimitte nobis debita nostra sicut et nos dimittimus debitoribus nostris. Et ne nos inducas in tentationem, sed libera nos a malo. Amen." actually meant ? How many /today/ know what "Amen" means ? How many can explain why Jesus apparently had two names ("Jesus" and "Christ") when all of his disciples had only one ? How many can explain why sometimes he is referred to as Jesus Christ and at other times as "Christ Jesus" ? Yes, the Latin Mass united the whole Catholic world, but did it not unite it in ignorance rather than in understanding ? How did it differ from the Mennonite Church today, which insists that the only bible that a Mennonite may legitimately read is the Old High German version, which almost none apart from the Elders can now understand ? And which has excommunicated one of its members for daring to say in public that Mennonites should be allowed to use a bible written in a language accessible to all ? Please do not get me wrong : I love the Latin Mass, the King James Bible, and all the similar now out-of-fashion carryovers of archaic language (you have probably seen in my posts that I continue to spell "shewn" with an "e" to this day), but I have the benefit of having English as a first language, of having had an education that included Latin, and in being sufficiently interested in language that the KJV is accessible to me. But my wife is Vietnamese, and for her, modern English is far easier to understand; her knowledge of Latin is nil; and so her needs are very different to mine. Enough : this was seriously off-topic, and I apologise whole-heartedly to the list. ** Phil. -------------------------------------------------- Subscriptions, Archive, and List information, etc.: http://tug.org/mailman/listinfo/xetex