> Why would I look at Abu'l-Baha's statement regarding cannibalism amongst
the
  > men of the Sudan as hyperbole?  Why would a statement of fact be
hyperbole
  > in your view?

  Dear Richard,

  Actually, I've never heard of cannibalism being a problem in the Sudan,
but since the word means 'black' in Arabic, Abdu'l-Baha probably had in mind
all of sub-Saharan Africa. But if we assume Abdu'l-Baha was not engaging in
hyperbole then we have the contradiction which Mark already pointed out to
you. We have Abdu'l-Baha saying this:

  "A man who has not had a spiritual education is a brute.  Like the savages
of Africa, whose actions, habits and morals are purely sensual, they act
according to the demands of nature to such a degree that they rend and eat
one another."
  -- `Abdu'l-Baha, Some Answered Questions, p.119

  While Shoghi Effendi says this:

  "It is indeed an encouraging and awe-inspiring sight to witness the spread
of our beloved Faith amongst those whom civilised nations misguidedly term
'savages', 'primitive peoples' and uncivilised nations.'"
   From a letter dated July 11, 1956, written on behalf of Shoghi Effendi
and cited: Unfolding Destiny, p.365

  Shoghi Effendi considers the use of the term 'savages' in reference to
tribal people's 'misguided'. Yet Abdu'l-Baha used did so Himself. How would
you explain this other than by reference to hyperbole?

  warmest, Susan


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