To the list in general and Gilberto in particular,
I think the question as to why Jesus or Moses were mute on this particular question is tied up with the concept of "progressive revelation". This concept is not really acceptable to Islam in general because Islam believes that the Qur'an is perfect and uncorrectable over time.
Since the Qur'an is considered to be the perfection off the Injeel and the Torah this raises question with why Jesus or Moses would allow such a practice.
If one embraces the concept of progressive revelation the question is unimportant. Jesus and Moses taught as God willed and God willed that the instructions would change over time.
Regards,
Scott
Gilberto Simpson <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
Gilberto Simpson <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
On 8/2/06, Hasan Elias <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>wrote:
> [EMAIL PROTECTED] escribió:
> don't get why recent
> > past Prophets as the Báb or Muhammad did not forbid it.
> Huh? Muhammad and the Bab did forbid it.
> What about Jesus, Moses or the other Manifestations?
I won't comment on Jesus and Moses (as) but Judaism and Christianity
(Catholicism, Orthodoxy) certainly allow the conditional use of wine,
even as a part of religious ceremonies. And according to those
religions, these practices are based on the instructions of their
founders.
-G
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