STARK, BARBARA H <bs7...@att.com> wrote: >> From: Michael Richardson <mcr+i...@sandelman.ca> >> >> In the ADD WG, Barbara STARK, BARBARA H <bs7...@att.com> wrote: >> > [BHS] While my ISP requires me to use the CE router they supply, I’ve >> > never had an issue connecting that to my own router and then running >> my >> > home network from my router. The CE router from my particular ISP >> > (YMMV) even automatically passes on the public IPv4 address it acquires >> > and a /64 IPv6 prefix to my router (so IPv4 just has the single NAT and >> > IPv6 works great). I have total ability to choose any router I want and >> > configure that router as much as that router vendor’s GUI allows (e.g., >> >> 1) Does your ISP provides router auto-detect that there is another router >> behind >> it, and turn itself into a modem only? or did you have configure that?
> The ISP router auto-detects the presence of a router on its LAN and > uses a capture screen to ask the user if they want the ISP router to go > into "IPv4 passthrough" mode. The ISP router does not become a This is very cool. Is it written up as a specification somewhere? What is the signal that the device behind is a router, and not a PC? Why isn't homenet standardizing this? > PPPoE is only legacy (old ADSL). The IPv4 passthrough does work there > (because the ISP router is still a router, as described above). IPv6 on > legacy is 6rd with a /60 -- so the IPv6 stuff is different. Fiber, > VDSL, and Gfast (and some newer ADSL) are IPoE (PTM), and not IP o > PPPoE o ATM. Nobody has told Bell Canada the PPPoE is legacy :-) -- Michael Richardson <mcr+i...@sandelman.ca>, Sandelman Software Works -= IPv6 IoT consulting =-
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