STARK, BARBARA H <bs7...@att.com> wrote:
    >> From: Michael Richardson <mcr+i...@sandelman.ca>
    >>
    >> In the ADD WG, Barbara STARK, BARBARA H <bs7...@att.com> wrote:
    >> > [BHS] While my ISP requires me to use the CE router they supply, I’ve
    >> > never had an issue connecting that to my own router and then running
    >> my
    >> > home network from my router. The CE router from my particular ISP
    >> > (YMMV) even automatically passes on the public IPv4 address it acquires
    >> > and a /64 IPv6 prefix to my router (so IPv4 just has the single NAT and
    >> > IPv6 works great). I have total ability to choose any router I want and
    >> > configure that router as much as that router vendor’s GUI allows (e.g.,
    >>
    >> 1) Does your ISP provides router auto-detect that there is another router
    >> behind
    >> it, and turn itself into a modem only?  or did you have configure that?

    > The ISP router auto-detects the presence of a router on its LAN and
    > uses a capture screen to ask the user if they want the ISP router to go
    > into "IPv4 passthrough" mode. The ISP router does not become a

This is very cool.
Is it written up as a specification somewhere?  What is the signal that the
device behind is a router, and not a PC?

Why isn't homenet standardizing this?

    > PPPoE is only legacy (old ADSL). The IPv4 passthrough does work there
    > (because the ISP router is still a router, as described above). IPv6 on
    > legacy is 6rd with a /60 -- so the IPv6 stuff is different. Fiber,
    > VDSL, and Gfast (and some newer ADSL) are IPoE (PTM), and not IP o
    > PPPoE o ATM.

Nobody has told Bell Canada the PPPoE is legacy :-)

--
Michael Richardson <mcr+i...@sandelman.ca>, Sandelman Software Works
 -= IPv6 IoT consulting =-

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