Ryan Sleevi <ryan-i...@sleevi.com> wrote:
    >> The client has control over lex.example, but and can prove it with dns-01
    >> TXT
    >> record placed at _acme-challenge.lex.example.  Why does it matter whether
    >> it
    >> is so.me.comp.lex.example or ve.ry.so.me.comp.lex.example.
    >> or an.other.comp.lex.example??


    > The mistake you’ve made here is assuming the client has control over
    > lex.example, and thus all subdomains. The point of all of this is that is
    > an unrealistic assumption: the client may only have control over the DNS
    > zone at so.me.comp.lex.example or they might have control at the
    > me.comp.lex.example, but no control at comp.lex.example.

I don't understand.
If the client doesn't control lex.example, then why would it expect to get
any kind of control of that?
Same as without subdomains.

    > The existing approach with ACME assumes and expects that validation will 
be
    > done at the FQDN (this is an oversimplification, but the nuance here isn’t
    > as important).

Yes, the FULLY-QUALIFIED.  Not the public name.
dns-01 works just fine today for so.me.comp.lex.example.

The client does not demonstrate control over lex.example using dns-01 when it
asks for so.me.comp.lex.example.

--
Michael Richardson <mcr+i...@sandelman.ca>   . o O ( IPv6 IøT consulting )
           Sandelman Software Works Inc, Ottawa and Worldwide




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