To be fair, quite a lot of your original statement was true. As you said, namespaces do not necessarily correspond to the assembly name, and a namespace can indeed span multiple assemblies.
It's just that the conclusion you drew from this was, as Stefan pointed out, incorrect. You can define two types that have the same name and are in the same namespace by putting them in two different assemblies, as you suggest, it's just not correct to say that these are "the same type". -- Ian Griffiths - DevelopMentor (RSS: http://www.interact-sw.co.uk/iangblog/rss2.0 ) > -----Original Message----- > From: Ross Diesel > > Knew I should have validated my understanding before making that statement > ;-( > > Thanks for the correction. > > regards > > -----Original Message----- > From: Stefan Holdermans > > Ross, > > > My understanding is that the type is defined with reference > > to the namespace from which it is exposed and the namespace > > does not neccessarily correspond to the assembly name ie > > namespaces can span assemblies so one could conceivably > > define the same type in two different assemblies. > > Nope. If I declare a type T to be in namespace N and compile it into an > assembly A that has version v, culture c and public-key token p, then > that type is uniquely identified as [A, v, c, p]N.T. That is, a type > [A', v', c', p']N'.T' is equal to [A, v, c, p]N.T iff A = A', v = v', c > = c', p = p', N' = N, and T = T'. =================================== This list is hosted by DevelopMentorŪ http://www.develop.com Some .NET courses you may be interested in: NEW! Guerrilla ASP.NET, 26 Jan 2004, in Los Angeles http://www.develop.com/courses/gaspdotnetls View archives and manage your subscription(s) at http://discuss.develop.com
