It's endemic on this forum that we use a word -- 'taste', 'art', 'aesthetic
experience' -- with little or no attempt to describe the notion we have in mind
when we use it.
> I would assert -- the best (or only?) true
> evidence for taste is the product thereof.
>
So, depending on what Chris has in mind with 'taste', no mere non-creative
contemplator can have "taste". (Presumably he would not accept as a 'product'
simply the feeling/experience of the contemplator. Hard to test for that, no?)
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