I think they differ from one another.  They might differ more for me than for 
those who don't look at them as much.  I have a wide and detailed index in mind 
for paint marks.  Most people don't.  At our Natural History Museum there are 
many hundreds of different beetles on display.  Except for size I can scarcely 
tell them apart and don't really remember their differences.  But I'm sure the 
entomologists can interpret their differences easily according to their precise 
indexing. Earlier today I talked to a person who thought a reproduction of a 
painting on a textured caredboad is actually painted paint on canvas. 
wc


----- Original Message ----
From: "[email protected]" <[email protected]>
To: [email protected]
Sent: Sun, December 9, 2012 6:09:36 PM
Subject: Re: Kate's excellent queries; Barthes; etc

What do you think the numerous applications of paint on paintings are?

-----Original Message-----
From: William Conger <[email protected]>
To: aesthetics-l <[email protected]>
Sent: Sun, Dec 9, 2012 6:26 pm
Subject: Re: Kate's excellent queries; Barthes; etc

The 'people' would be the author and at least one other.  They need to
agree,
more or less, to reach the same interpretation of a mark.  Whatever
they decide
in that regard has nothing to do, inherent, with the mark.  But these
two people
are just the minimum; they could be millions and tens of millions, or
billions.

An example of a mark being interpreted to be about something shared by
two
people, the minimum, would be, say, If I prearranged with you that I
would send
you a letter and sign it with a Z.  An example of a mark being
interpreted in
more or less the same way by millions might be the :) or ? or maybe any
of the
various keys on your computer.  However, the other reality of
interpretations is
that many of them crowd up against any other and there's no assurance
that one
of them or several, or more, might take precedence over others, or even
over the
one supposedly already agreed to.  That's why I insist that anything
always
looks like something else and always evokes associative thoughts,
images,
feelings, which may or may not be shared by others.  If they are not
shared then
no 'communication' takes place even though 'meanings' can be imagined
by the
person who is imagining them.

WC


----- Original Message ----
From: "[email protected]" <[email protected]>
To: [email protected]
Sent: Sun, December 9, 2012 4:52:39 PM
Subject: Re: Kate's excellent queries; Barthes; etc

It would be even better if I had said he was wrong. And I didn't say
the intention was embedded in the mark.

"The only reasonable thing to say about the
mark that seems to convey its author's intention is that it conforms to
other
marks that have already been agreed to by at least two people as
standing for
such and such ."


What do you mean by this and who are these people?


From: William Conger <[email protected]>
To: aesthetics-l <[email protected]>
Sent: Sun, Dec 9, 2012 5:46 pm
Subject: Re: Kate's excellent queries; Barthes; etc

See below and other comments on this thread. I say ridiculous!  It's
irresponsible to make up a saying or thought and attribute it to
Jackson Pollock
and then claim that he was wrong. For crying out loud, you can't do
that even if
you are pretending to make an argument about something irrelevant to
Jackson
Pollock and his art.

Further, I can't determine what difference it makes whether or not an
intention
produced a given mark.  The intention is not embedded in the mark no
matter how
much someone like to think it is.  The only reasonable thing to say
about the
mark that seems to convey its author's intention is that it conforms to
other
marks that have already been agreed to by at least two people as
standing for
such and such .

Anything short of an exact duplicate of something is 'missing the
mark'. even an
exact duplicate would have to replace the original in space and time as
well as
in all other respects....and we know that's not possible.  So there is
no such
thing as a fully, exact duplicate of anything. when we say something
duplicate
something else we are already admitting it serves well enough and
that's all.

Pollock is not here to object to the ridiculous comments being
attributed to him
or using him as a red herring to propose a faulty argument.  But I'm
here to
object for him.

wc



----- Original Message ----
From: "[email protected]" <[email protected]>
To: [email protected]
Sent: Sun, December 9, 2012 2:04:56 PM
Subject: Re: Kate's excellent queries; Barthes; etc

Shaped, as in something whose shape might match the edge of a line. You
could look at a cartoon and separate the lines in the drawings into
bits. Since a mark with no conscious meaning  was what Pollock was
aiming at he would indeed be justified in chiding the viewers on their
insistence that he intended a penis. This would be partly because their
chatter would probably arouse memories of simple schoolboy  humor.

-----Original Message-----
From: Cheerskep <[email protected]>
To: aesthetics-l <[email protected]>
Sent: Sun, Dec 9, 2012 2:26 pm
Subject: Re: Kate's excellent queries; Barthes; etc

In a message dated 12/9/12 12:10:24 PM, [email protected] writes:


A mark is not a word. A mark shaped to resemble a small   part of
something is not intended to carry memories or notions and if the
viewer insists that it brings memories and notions he is not looking
at the mark itself in a field of other marks . He is you might say
missing the mark.
Kate Sullivan

What Kate seems to be citing here is a mark of a kind I myself cannot
imagine. My failing may in part be due to my lack of surety of what
Kate has in
mind when she says, "A mark shaped to resemble a small   part of
something".
Does she mean it's INTENDED to resemble?

My guess is she does not. She means, the shaper creates a mark that
DOES
resemble something (to some people) but that resemblance is, call it,
coincidental - the shaper did not have that resemblance in mind.

More strongly: the shaper had no intention that her mark "resemble"
anything at all. Picture, say, a Kline or Rothko, or the first
paint-fling as
Pollack starts a new work.

Let's say Pollack's flung paint hits the canvas in such a way that four
out
of five observers, upon seeing the shape, cannot help being reminded of
a
penis.   Kate seems to be saying that Pollack would be justified in
growling
that they "miss the mark".

But it seems to me arguable that Pollack is the one who's missing
something
here. What we tend to count on in any "artist" in any genre is her
ability
to control the response in her audience by selecting what goes into her
work. Suppose a novelist names one of her characters Alfred Peter Enis.
One
reader after another queries that name: A.P. Enis.

Is the novelist justified in saying "A.P. Enis is not intended to carry
me
mories or notions," and criticizing her readers because they "are not
looking
at A.P. Enis in a field of other marks"?

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