Yeah, I didn't give much information there.  I did try out your first
theory and it seems to have been correct. What would be the easiest way to
map whatever address the VPN client currently has (assuming this can
change) to the address that is assigned via the VPN server?

Thanks for the suggestions.

On Mon, Nov 18, 2019 at 1:33 PM Adam Moffett <dmmoff...@gmail.com> wrote:

> Hard to generalize without knowing more.
>
> .....but chances are the VPN server masquerades traffic from the VPN
> clients, so one difference might be that the VPN server will see your
> client coming from his private IP, and the adjacent routers might see the
> client coming from the VPN server's IP.  So on the server, allow access
> from VPN client IP's.
>
> Depending on what IP you're hitting, this could also be a hairpin NAT
> scenario.
>
>
> On 11/18/2019 2:24 PM, Jason McKemie wrote:
>
> I'm having an issue wherein I'm trying to lock down winbox access on some
> routers so that they are only accessible via VPN. The issue is that I'm
> still not able to access the router that is acting as the VPN server,
> adjacent routers work as expected, however. I assume this is
> misconfiguration. Any ideas where I should look?
>
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