Quite right Dan. While I applaud the spirit of omd's attempt to win by
paradox, we are very far from being  in a position to say that we cannot
determine whether The UNDEAD is player. We haven't even tried to collect
any of the possibly relevant evidence yet!

On 26 June 2013 11:22, Fool <fool1...@gmail.com> wrote:

> On 25/06/2013 4:34 PM, omd wrote:
>
>> On Tue, Jun 25, 2013 at 8:27 PM, The 
>> UNDEAD<theagoranundead@gmail.**com<theagoranund...@gmail.com>>
>>  wrote:
>>
>>> I do not register.  I propose repealing rule 327.
>>>
>>
>> Well... even though there are supposed to be a few days left, I don't
>> want to delay this further lest someone else beat me to it :)
>>
>> I invoke judgement on the statement "The legality of The UNDEAD's
>> attempted proposal cannot be determined with finality."
>>
>> I submit that either I or my brother sent this message, but I won't
>> reveal which one. My brother is not a Voter, so the move is legal
>> iff I was the one who sent it.
>>
>>
> Maybe you should have delayed about 11 hours. By rule 214, I must assign
> myself Judge. By rule 215, I have 24 hours. But I rule now: FALSE.
>
> Goethe's arguments:
>
>> Was thinking about this, it's interesting that this win attempt goes
>> along with our earlier discussion on legal versus mathematical.  In a
>> mathematical sense, one could say that it was "equally likely or
>> unlikely" that omd sent the message based applying the principle of
>> indifference to omd's claim.  But in a legal sense, one must establish
>> where the burden of proof lies.  So far, the default assumption has
>> been "assume each new email address is from a different person".  Omd
>> questions the default assumption, but with testimony that does not
>> sufficiently establish a preponderance of evidence.  Therefore, stick
>> with the default assumption (that the message came from someone other
>> than omd).
>>
>
> Clearly the presumption is of course that the Undead is not a Voter.
>
> Furthermore I fail to see how even the mathematician's (thought it was
> supposed to be logician's) version of the argument is sound. The reference
> to the "principle of indifference" instead makes it sound like some sort of
> Bayesian reasoning. But let me put my Bayesian hat on anyway. For this to
> work I would have to put 100% credence in omd's statement and then think
> that there was nothing to epistemically distinguish the two branches. This
> is far from the case.
>
>  --Dan the non-Bayesian Fool.
>



-- 
Steve Gardner
Research Grants Development
Faculty of Business and Economics
Monash University, Caulfield campus
Rm: S8.04  |  ph: (613) 9905 2486
e: steven.gard...@monash.edu
*** NB I am now working 1.0 FTE, but I am away from my desk** on alternate
Thursday afternoons (pay weeks). ***

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