On Thu, Aug 4, 2011 at 7:42 PM, Gaurav Menghani
<gaurav.mengh...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> On Thu, Aug 4, 2011 at 7:37 PM, saurabh singh <saurab...@gmail.com> wrote:
>>
>> Its a classical 0/1 knapsack problem which can be implemented either as a
>> greedy solution or dp,,,,
>
> It has been stated earlier in the thread that this is an 'NP-Complete'
> problem. [0]
> It means, there is no known polynomial-time algorithm for this problem. If
> you think you have a greedy solution to this problem, think again. The DP
> solution is also, 'pseudo-polynomial-time'

Just adding, greedy solutions are always possible, but the thing to
ponder over is, whether they give optimal solutions _for_every_case_
or not.


-- 
Gaurav Menghani

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