Ton,
Appears to be the right direction + promising; perhaps one of the forum math 
mavens will comment.
Regards,
Scott

--- In [email protected], "Ton Sieverding" <ton.sieverd...@...> wrote:
>
> Hi Scott,
> 
> What about replacing MaxDD by AvgDD + 2 * StdevDD ?
> 
> Regards, Ton.
> 
> 
>   ----- Original Message ----- 
>   From: sdwcyberdude 
>   To: [email protected] 
>   Sent: Wednesday, September 08, 2010 4:34 PM
>   Subject: [amibroker] Re: AIRAP - fitness function
> 
> 
>     
>   Tomasz,
> 
>   I also use and see value in the Max DD, however, I believe it is should 
> only be a "secondary" measure.
> 
>   Think of a 10 year backtest. System X has 1 drawdown of 30% (max), and many 
> small drawdown never exceeding 5%. System Y has 1 drawdown of 25% (max), and 
> 10+ other drawdowns between 20 and 23%.
> 
>   Which system is more "stable"? I will invest risk capital in System X, 
> which has the higher max drawdown, but much fewer drawdowns of depth.
> 
>   I would love to have a measure of drawdown that more directly and 
> intuitively measures the depth and frequency of drawdowns per unit of time. 
> Correlation of the equity curve also gets at that point.
> 
>   Regarding the Omega, I am relying on a friend who studied both the advanced 
> math and models and uncover significant concerns with the Omega (I seem to 
> recall in was bias issues around skewness and kurtosis, but I might be 
> wrong), however it was unpublished work for hedge funds. He also developed a 
> proprietary alternative. Sorry I can't be more helpful on that one.
> 
>   Kind Regards,
>   Scott
> 
>   --- In [email protected], "tf28373" <tomfid@> wrote:
>   >
>   > Hi Scott
>   > 
>   > Thanks for response. I agree that the Sortino ratio is a kind of solution 
> to the typical Sharp ratio disadvantages (like penalization high moments, 
> which for me is irrational). Nevertheless, there is no max dd taken into 
> account, which confuses me a bit. However, I might be too devoted to this 
> risk measure (max dd) - what do you think? Is mean and its variance 
> better/sufficient values as far as the characteristics of equity line is 
> considered? (This is what brain123 was supporting in many discussions.)
>   > 
>   > "One should be careful if it is built upon the Omega, which I believe 
> introduces other problems."
>   > 
>   > That is an interesting point - can you elaborate a bit on this one? In 
> fact I was hoping to get this kind of information when starting this thread 
> as - frankly speaking - I don't feel familiar with plain maths enough to 
> analyse it...
>   > 
>   > Looking forward to your response.
>   > Regards
>   > Tomasz
>   > 
>   > --- In [email protected], "sdwcyberdude" <scwalker1986@> wrote:
>   > >
>   > > Tomasz,
>   > > 
>   > > Thanks for raising this question (and for the good work you do).
>   > > 
>   > > The Sortino Ratio is a well regarding improvement upon the Sharpe; I 
> urge you to consider adding the Sortino to the base metric array. Is there a 
> reason you passed on it earlier?
>   > > 
>   > > The Sharpe ratio has a lot of problems and I was not familiar with the 
> AIRAP. One should be careful if it is built upon the Omega, which I believe 
> introduces other problems.
>   > > 
>   > > Regards,
>   > > Scott
>   > > 
>   > > --- In [email protected], "tf28373" <tomfid@> wrote:
>   > > >
>   > > > 
>   > > > Hello everyone
>   > > > 
>   > > > I have been working on the choose of fitness function following the
>   > > > Howard Bundy's advices in his "Quantitative Trading Systems" and come
>   > > > across M. Sharma's Alternative Investments Risk Adjusted Performance
>   > > > (AIRAP).
>   > > > 
>   > > > The equation of it is as following:
>   > > > 
>   > > > AIRAP = [ E pi*(1+TRi)(1-c) ] 1/(1-c) - 1,
>   > > > 
>   > > > where TRi - ith period total fund return (in my opinon it can also be
>   > > > ith trade net return), c - risk aversion parameter (author suggests to
>   > > > set its value to c=4), i=1,...,N - number of periods (as for me it can
>   > > > be number of trades), pi - the probability of the ith period's total
>   > > > return (according to the author it can be replaced with 1/N). (For
>   > > > futher information please check this working paper:
>   > > > http://www.intelligenthedgefundinvesting.com/pubs/rb-ms01.pdf
>   > > > <http://www.intelligenthedgefundinvesting.com/pubs/rb-ms01.pdf> .)
>   > > > 
>   > > > M. Sharma argues that this measure captures all higher moments,
>   > > > penalizes for higher volatility and leverage (downside risk is 
> penalized
>   > > > more) and has all merits of Sharp ratio, though without its 
> limitations
>   > > > and disadvantages. I have carried out some simulations on the 
> artificial
>   > > > returns of different distributions and indeed it makes some 
> difference.
>   > > > Nevertheless what I am suspicious about is the fact that it was the 
> very
>   > > > first time I found this objective function even though it was created 
> by
>   > > > Sharma about 5 years ago. As for me it can mean that AIRAP is in fact
>   > > > far from being effective or/and practical fitness measure at least for
>   > > > trader like us and nobody use it (maybe I am wrong...). Another issue
>   > > > that concerns me a bit is omission of MaxDrawDown in the equation, 
> which
>   > > > - at least for me - is a very important risk measure. According to 
> many
>   > > > experienced wise people writing on this forum (like ex Mr Bundy), an
>   > > > effective fitness function shouls take Max DD or some comparable risk
>   > > > measure into consideration in order to be really useful.
>   > > > 
>   > > > What do you think about AIRAP? Should I proceed with utilizing this
>   > > > function?
>   > > > 
>   > > > I am looking forward to your response. Thank you in advance.
>   > > > 
>   > > > Tomasz
>   > > >
>   > >
>   >
>


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