When you say 2/3 of calls, is there an inconsistency to the same recipient
or could it be a carrier issue (Verizon only, T-Mobile only, etc.)?

 

From: asterisk-users-boun...@lists.digium.com
[mailto:asterisk-users-boun...@lists.digium.com] On Behalf Of Olivier
Sent: Friday, November 04, 2011 3:33 AM
To: Asterisk Users Mailing List - Non-Commercial Discussion
Subject: Re: [asterisk-users] CallerID inconsistently presented through
ISDN/cellular networks

 

 

2011/11/3 Danny Nicholas <da...@debsinc.com>

<snip>


[callbob]


Exten => _XX.,1,answer

Exten => _XX.,n,Set(CALLERID(num)=${EXTEN})

Exten => _XX.,n,Dial(DAHDI/1/5551212,30)


>From memory, I did it this way :
Exten => _XX.,1,Set(CALLERID(num)=whatever)
Exten => _XX.,n,answer
Exten => _XX.,n,Dial(DAHDI/1/5551212,30)

This seems to work for roughly 2/3 of calls.
I'm trying to get as close to 100% as possible.

I can't think of any configuration issue or bug in Asterisk that would cause
1/3 of calls to be incorrectly presented.
I rather suspect that different calls MAY use different routes and a
misconfiguration in one equipement in one of those would cause the issue.

I don't know how Telcos manage their networks.
I would have naturally thought that going from one point to another in this
network would always pass through the same set of equipements.
Maybe it's not the case and specifically when the end destination is a
cellphone and there is a large gateway between the landline and the mobile
networks.

Is this reasonning correct ?

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