When you say 2/3 of calls, is there an inconsistency to the same recipient or could it be a carrier issue (Verizon only, T-Mobile only, etc.)?
From: asterisk-users-boun...@lists.digium.com [mailto:asterisk-users-boun...@lists.digium.com] On Behalf Of Olivier Sent: Friday, November 04, 2011 3:33 AM To: Asterisk Users Mailing List - Non-Commercial Discussion Subject: Re: [asterisk-users] CallerID inconsistently presented through ISDN/cellular networks 2011/11/3 Danny Nicholas <da...@debsinc.com> <snip> [callbob] Exten => _XX.,1,answer Exten => _XX.,n,Set(CALLERID(num)=${EXTEN}) Exten => _XX.,n,Dial(DAHDI/1/5551212,30) >From memory, I did it this way : Exten => _XX.,1,Set(CALLERID(num)=whatever) Exten => _XX.,n,answer Exten => _XX.,n,Dial(DAHDI/1/5551212,30) This seems to work for roughly 2/3 of calls. I'm trying to get as close to 100% as possible. I can't think of any configuration issue or bug in Asterisk that would cause 1/3 of calls to be incorrectly presented. I rather suspect that different calls MAY use different routes and a misconfiguration in one equipement in one of those would cause the issue. I don't know how Telcos manage their networks. I would have naturally thought that going from one point to another in this network would always pass through the same set of equipements. Maybe it's not the case and specifically when the end destination is a cellphone and there is a large gateway between the landline and the mobile networks. Is this reasonning correct ?
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