----- Original Message -----
From: "William T Goodall" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: "BRIN-L" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Thursday, January 09, 2003 1:12 PM
Subject: Re: A Problem For Conservatives

> > But, the problem with this argument is that, if you define what real
is, of
> > course you can refute arguments you disagree with.
>
> I didn't define what real was. I just pointed out that in the real world
> nobody refuted the argument.

Why be pedantic?  Arguing that something does not work in the real world
presupposes that one can separate the places where the argument works (not
the real world)  and those where they don't (the real world).

The only way I've seen "real world" used in a way that makes sense to me is
in response to extreme idealism: phenomenon is not just a partial divorced
from reality, but it has nothing to do with reality.  In the real world,
i.e. the world that the idealist lives in, she does act as though freeway
traffic is real, she doesn't just step in front of the unreal car going 60
mph.

But, in the "real world," people do act as though they believe in God.  So,
that test is passed.  The question of the existence of things that there is
no empirical evidence for has also been used.  My arguments intend to show
just how far such an argument cuts.

>
> >
> > For example, if one wishes to argue that only things for which there is
> > solid empirical evidence need to be considered real, one finds much in
the
> > trash heap; including many things believed in by empiricists.  The
classic
> > one is self-awareness.  If the mind can be reduced to the brain,
>
> 'Reduced to' isn't equivalent to 'is'. The mind may be supervening on
the
> brain, but that isn't the same as being the brain.

So do you accept the mind as real,  without any empirical evidence for
its existence?

> > and the brain works by biochemistry, then there is no reason to assume
that
> > humans are self aware. It adds nothing that cannot already be explained
by
> > biochemistry.
>
> It makes a big difference to the truth value of the phrase "I am self
> aware". And empirically one could look at the patterns of activity in a
> person's brain when they uttered that phrase to see if they were lying or
> not.

No, the self awareness contributes nothing to models of the behavior of
humans, thus, by definition, there is no scientific evidence for
self-awareness.   I'll agree that the word conscious is part of the
language that is used to describe brain states as well as self awareness.
Thus, I'd be happy to grant it the same "reality" to consciousness as I
grant to reduced mass.

Let's look at two models.  One uses calls conscious and unconscious, the
other uses "state A", and state "B".  Both assume a biochemical basis for
all human behavior.  The predictive value of each is identical. In this
case, conscious and state A are equally useful descriptions.

Indeed, state A would, in a real sense, be preferred because it doesn't
carry implicit baggage that is not actually part of the scientific model.



> > Yet, few atheists deny the existence of self consciousness,
> > and argue long and hard that what isn't self consciousness really is.
>
> What has atheism got to do with consciousness?  Atheism addresses the
question of the existence
>of god(s), and has nothing to do with the question of consciousness.

Well, the proof seems to be:

There is no empirical evidence for God
It is foolish to consider something that there is no empirical evidence for
as existing.
Thus there is no God.

I'm attacking statement number 2 with

There is no empirical evidence for the existence of self consciousness
It is very reasonable to consider self-consciousness as real.
Thus, statement 2 given above is false.

Dan M.




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