----- Original Message ----- 
From: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Thursday, February 12, 2004 4:01 PM
Subject: Re: Is my father-in-law Jewish?



> >
> > There is a saying in Christianity that no one has faith like a convert.
> > People who use to be X, but are now Y are often the strongest in
condemming
> > those who are still X.  I don't think this is just a Christian
phenomenon.
> > So, I'd postulate that folks who agree with the premise that its Jewish
> > culture that's the problem, not Jewish biology, and that any Jew that
> > renounced his/her traditon and accept another way of living (e.g.
> > Christianity) are anti-Semetic, even though they will accept people who
> > have Jewish ancestory as good folks and their equals.
>
> Not sure what this means.

I think you addressed it above.   I was rephrasing the question to try to
make sure one of the way I phrased it made sense.  The above statement
basically means that I think that folks who would persecute Jews who stayed
Jews but accept converts to Christianity would still be anti-Semitic;
agreeing with what you've written in your reply.

So, given the answer to your question, why would one refute the concept
that Marx was anti-Semitic by referring to his Jewish family?  I'll agree
that this thesis still has to be proven from text, and that many writings
of Marx can be used in such a discussion; I just don't think that having
Jewish grandparents means that he could not be anti-Semitic.

Dan M.


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