----- Original Message ----- From: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> Sent: Thursday, February 12, 2004 4:01 PM Subject: Re: Is my father-in-law Jewish?
> > > > There is a saying in Christianity that no one has faith like a convert. > > People who use to be X, but are now Y are often the strongest in condemming > > those who are still X. I don't think this is just a Christian phenomenon. > > So, I'd postulate that folks who agree with the premise that its Jewish > > culture that's the problem, not Jewish biology, and that any Jew that > > renounced his/her traditon and accept another way of living (e.g. > > Christianity) are anti-Semetic, even though they will accept people who > > have Jewish ancestory as good folks and their equals. > > Not sure what this means. I think you addressed it above. I was rephrasing the question to try to make sure one of the way I phrased it made sense. The above statement basically means that I think that folks who would persecute Jews who stayed Jews but accept converts to Christianity would still be anti-Semitic; agreeing with what you've written in your reply. So, given the answer to your question, why would one refute the concept that Marx was anti-Semitic by referring to his Jewish family? I'll agree that this thesis still has to be proven from text, and that many writings of Marx can be used in such a discussion; I just don't think that having Jewish grandparents means that he could not be anti-Semitic. Dan M. _______________________________________________ http://www.mccmedia.com/mailman/listinfo/brin-l