I'm still gaining basic experience calling and have been noodling for a few minutes on this - thought I'd seek others' expertise and experience...
I'm looking at my program candidates for an upcoming dance and in reviewing the dance *Seagull* by Erik Weberg (which can be found at http://www.kluberg.com/eriksdances.html#Seagull) I started thinking it would be easier to start the teaching at some other point than the A1, due to having to set up the initial short waves (which otherwise naturally form out of the B2). And noticing that the dance ends with a G Allem. Lt. 1+1/2, I started thinking it might be best to start with the B1, which is a very conventional Cir. Lt. 3/4 and Pass Thru..., which would leave the dance ending at the existing A2, finishing with a more satisfying P Swing. Ok, so this has two implications I see right away: 1. the band's music selection may change 2. the progression moves from the B1 original to the A1 as reshuffled. Are there any untoward consequences I'm missing? Why would this not be the default sequence? Thanks, Don
