Alrighty, is this some sort of typo in the solution, because I'm totally not getting how it's supposed to work.
Specifically, I get how we are calculating the summary address. So I'm good there. However, I'm not understanding why applying the "area 1 range" command on R2 would actually satisfy the requirement. Mostly I'm not getting it because while VLAN 2222 hangs between R1 and R2, VLAN 26666 hangs off of R6. Is it just that the Area1 summary gets sent into SFP and then R4 sees the summary as being Area 1, and therefore traffic makes its way to R2 and then R2 makes its own independent forwarding decision? If I'm thinking my way through the answer's logic correctly, would traffic from R4 for VLAN 2666 (before summarization) go R4-R5-R6 while after summarization it would go R4-R5-R2-R6? _______________________________________________ For more information regarding industry leading CCIE Lab training, please visit www.ipexpert.com Are you a CCNP or CCIE and looking for a job? Check out www.PlatinumPlacement.com http://onlinestudylist.com/mailman/listinfo/ccie_rs
