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Hi Marcus

I'd say that this is mainly down to imprecise use of language (though
which taken out of context can easily lead to misunderstandings): this
is really all I was getting at.  When someone writes "least squares is a
special case of maximum likelihood" I assume what they really mean is
"maximum likelihood reduces to least squares in the special case of
normal errors".  I would have no argument with that.  The problem with
the first statement is that it frequently seems to lead to the invalid
corollary that "least squares assumes normal errors".  The Wikipedia
article (not to mention the rest of the statistical literature!) makes
it clear that this is just plain wrong ... and I've seen examples of
this by people who should know better (but who shall remain nameless).

-- Ian

> -----Original Message-----
> From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On 
> Behalf Of Marcus David Collins
> Sent: 22 August 2005 17:53
> To: CCP4
> Subject: RE: [ccp4bb]: maximum likelihood question
> 
> ***  For details on how to be removed from this list visit the  ***
> ***          CCP4 home page http://www.ccp4.ac.uk         ***
> 
> 
> I think many people would disagree, arguing that LS does represent a
> choice of error distribution when it is not otherwise known.  
> In fact, LS
> makes several assumptions about error (errors are 
> independent, have the
> same variance, expectation is zero..., see the wikipedia page from the
> original message>)  Just because we do not actively choose an error
> distribution does not mean that one is not chosen.  When we 
> use LS, and
> claim a "best fit" of the data, we are making the assumption that the
> errors are normal.  Like it or not, you never escape an error 
> distribution
> when you fit data.  Even if it isn't formally present, it is there.
> 
> What bothers me most about the claim that LS and ML are 
> separate is that
> it clouds the reasons why one does better with "ML" methods.  
> The reason
> is that one has treated the error distribution more correctly.  If you
> claim that LS says nothing about error, that connection is 
> not so clear.
> 
> Furthermore, what's wrong with making an assumption?  Rather than deny
> what's really going on, we simply can say, "In lieu of better 
> knowledge,
> we assume."
> 
> Marcus Collins
> 
> **************************************************************
> ***************
>                               Marcus D. Collins
>      Gruner Biophysics Group, Cornell University Dept. of 
> Physics, LASSP
>              (h) 607.347.4720 (w) 607.255.8678 (c) 607.351.8650
>          "You have opened a new door, and I share this with you,
>                   for I have been where you are now."
> **************************************************************
> ***************
> 
> On Mon, 22 Aug 2005, Ian Tickle wrote:
> 
> > ***  For details on how to be removed from this list visit the  ***
> > ***          CCP4 home page http://www.ccp4.ac.uk         ***
> >
> >
> >
> > The statement "least-squares is a special case of maximum 
> likelihood" is
> > not an accurate statement of the facts, because it implies 
> that LS is
> > only applicable to a subset of the problems in which ML is 
> applicable,
> > the implication being that LS assumes that the 
> observational errors are
> > normally distributed, and is only applicable in that 
> special case.  LS &
> > ML are different methods of parameter estimation which indeed give
> > identical results in the particular case of normally 
> distributed errors.
> > However LS is still applicable in the non-normal cases, you just get
> > different results from what ML would give.
> >
> > The ML results are by definition the most likely (i.e. most 
> consistent
> > with the data), but the method is restricted to cases where the
> > algebraic form of the error distribution is known (fortunately in
> > crystallography we usually do know it reasonably 
> accurately!).  LS has
> > no such restriction because far from assuming that the error
> > distribution is normal, it makes no assumptions whatever 
> concerning the
> > error distribution, hence it will give a result whatever the actual
> > distribution.  So LS is a fallback to ML in the many cases 
> in practice
> > where the error distribution is not known sufficiently accurately.
> >
> > For further info, see e.g. this:
> >
> > http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gauss-Markov_theorem
> >
> > -- Ian
> >
> > > -----Original Message-----
> > > From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On
> > > Behalf Of Peter Adrian Meyer
> > > Sent: 18 August 2005 14:11
> > > To: [email protected]
> > > Subject: [ccp4bb]: maximum likelihood question
> > >
> > > ***  For details on how to be removed from this list 
> visit the  ***
> > > ***          CCP4 home page http://www.ccp4.ac.uk         ***
> > >
> > >
> > > Hi all,
> > >
> > > Anthony Duff wrote (regarding R-fac and R-free from mapfiles?)
> > > > 2.  CNS does a worse job of refining a structure in the 
> late stages,
> > > even
> > > > accounting for differences in default restraint weights.
> > > (I don't know
> > > why
> > > > this would be so, with both using maximum likelihood...
> > > maybe the CNS
> > > algorithms are inferior?)
> > >
> > > This reminded me of a question I've been wondering about for
> > > a bit: Does
> > > maximum likelihood refer to a scoring function (generate 
> gradients to
> > > optimize while refining), or both a scoring function and 
> refinement
> > > menthod?  As far as I understand, it's the first (based on
> > > what I've seen
> > > of poking around in the internals of programs that do ML 
> refinement vs
> > > other types of refinement).  But least-squares is a 
> special case of
> > > maximum likelihood, and least-squares (again as far as I
> > > know) is both a
> > > scoring function and refinement method.
> > >
> > > Could somebody more knowledgable about maximum likelihood
> > > clear this up?
> > >
> > > Thanks,
> > >
> > > Pete
> > >
> > >
> > > Pete Meyer
> > > Fu Lab
> > > BMCB grad student
> > > Cornell University
> > >
> > >
> > >
> > >
> > >
> > >
> > >
> > >
> > >
> >
> > 
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