> Dana wrote:
> No, 19 judges have agreed that he is entitled, under Florida law and
> the ruling of the first judge, to make that determination. It's a
> distinction you still don't seem to grasp.
> 

First I'm not sure that that's true as it's different from what
experts have told me.  Second, even if is, practically (a state of
mind you don't seem to grasp) it means the same damn thing.

Put in a less confrontational way, it is my understanding that the 19
judges ruled on the merits of the decision.

BUT - let's say I'm wrong.  Then surely that would be a violation of
due process?

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