Since 1983, the financial wealth of the bottom 80% is up and that of the top 1% is down. How is that re-distributing upwards? I prefer financial wealth as a measure since it excludes real estate.
On Thu, Sep 30, 2010 at 12:13 AM, Maureen <[email protected]> wrote: > > So if I am reading these stats correctly, and that is debatable after > the day I've had, it looks like the top 20% has increased wealth > between 1983 and 2007, and bottom 80% has decreased. What does that > say about the so-called redistribution of wealth. Looks like it got > redistributed upward. > > On Wed, Sep 29, 2010 at 7:24 PM, Robert Munn <[email protected]> wrote: >> > >> Top 1 percent Next 19 percent Bottom 80 percent >> 1983 33.8% 47.5% 18.7% >> 1989 37.4% 46.2% 16.5% >> 1992 37.2% 46.6% 16.2% >> 1995 38.5% 45.4% 16.1% >> 1998 38.1% 45.3% 16.6% >> 2001 33.4% 51.0% 15.6% >> 2004 34.3% 50.3% 15.3% >> 2007 34.6% 50.5% 15.0% >> >> Financial Wealth >> Top 1 percent Next 19 percent Bottom 80 percent >> 1983 42.9% 48.4% 8.7% >> 1989 46.9% 46.5% 6.6% >> 1992 45.6% 46.7% 7.7% >> 1995 47.2% 45.9% 7.0% >> 1998 47.3% 43.6% 9.1% >> 2001 39.7% 51.5% > > ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~| Order the Adobe Coldfusion Anthology now! http://www.amazon.com/Adobe-Coldfusion-Anthology-Michael-Dinowitz/dp/1430272155/?tag=houseoffusion Archive: http://www.houseoffusion.com/groups/cf-community/message.cfm/messageid:328254 Subscription: http://www.houseoffusion.com/groups/cf-community/subscribe.cfm Unsubscribe: http://www.houseoffusion.com/groups/cf-community/unsubscribe.cfm
