He's looking at the difference in the two measures of wealth. When you look at "Total Net Worth" which includes things like your home, the bottom 80% make up 15% of the wealth. When you only look at Financial wealth (income producing assets) that figure is 7%, so you can say that including non-income producing assets doubles the percentage of wealth owned by the bottom 80%.
Of course in all case the total percentage of wealth owned by the bottom 80% declined over the period, so the income gap is widening no matter how you look at it. The point in this data set is simply looking at wealth accumulation by asset type. Judah On Thu, Sep 30, 2010 at 11:25 AM, Maureen <[email protected]> wrote: > > Under what math system is 7% greater than 8.7%? > You're going to have to explain how you arrived at this conclusion > based on those stats. > > On Thu, Sep 30, 2010 at 2:14 AM, Robert Munn <[email protected]> wrote: >> >> Since 1983, the financial wealth of the bottom 80% is up and that of >> the top 1% is down. How is that re-distributing upwards? I prefer >> financial wealth as a measure since it excludes real estate > > ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~| Order the Adobe Coldfusion Anthology now! http://www.amazon.com/Adobe-Coldfusion-Anthology-Michael-Dinowitz/dp/1430272155/?tag=houseoffusion Archive: http://www.houseoffusion.com/groups/cf-community/message.cfm/messageid:328338 Subscription: http://www.houseoffusion.com/groups/cf-community/subscribe.cfm Unsubscribe: http://www.houseoffusion.com/groups/cf-community/unsubscribe.cfm
