Hi,

Sanity check - 

Would it be fair to say that the way a port-based EoMPLS port treats l2protocol 
packets is essentially the same as if someone were to configure l2protocol 
forward?  That is, the packets are just forwarded along the PW unprocessed.  
Whereas l2protocol tunnel (like on an ME3400) will rewrite the destination MAC 
making it incompatible with a 'forward'ed l2protocol packet? 

Thanks in advance!
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