I've never had to implement a dns change, but supposedly yes it does change
the payload. there is only a few services where is does these payload
changes though. another big one used to be ping, NATing modifies the payload
of that also.

scott

""Charles D Hammonds""  wrote in message
news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> from the below link:
>
>
> Is that accurate??? The "ip nat outside source" command will translate the
> IP in the PAYLOAD of the DNS reply packet even though it is not the
> source??? doesn't sound right and I am unable to test it rite now...
>
> Charles
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> Sent: Tuesday, March 25, 2003 1:06 AM
> To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> Subject: RE: Natting problem...help!!! [7:66111]
>
>
> You could get around this by doing a two way nat, or as cisco calls it,
> nating for overlapping networks ..
>
>
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk648/tk361/technologies_configuration_examp
> le09186a0080093f30.shtml
>
> JP wrote:
> >
> > I have the following scenario
> >
> > ------------0-------------------0----------------------telnet
> > application
> >   network3            network 1                   network 2
> >    lan                       wan link
> >
> > I need all hosts on network 3 to telnet to my "telnet
> > application"
> > Problem is network 3 and network 2 both have the same ip range.
> >
> > My question is the following:
> > Is there any way i can perform natting to allow network 3 hosts
> > to telnet to
> > the application and use an ip address other than the one
> > assigned to the
> > application as the destination address???
> >
> > Any ideas appreciated
> >
> > Thanks




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