What about the fact that OSPF will install an Intra-area route over
and Inter-area route regardless of cost?
:)
----- Original Message -----
From: "Hire, Ejay"
To:
Sent: Tuesday, May 29, 2001 12:46 PM
Subject: RE: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> Okay, based on all of the information, we can come up with a
solution.
>
> Scenario:
> 4 routers connected in a ring by various speed links
>
> Objectives:
> Router A's traffic for Router C should be sent directly to C
> Router B's traffic for Router D should be sent directly to D
> Router A's Traffic for B or D should be sent to RouterB
> Router B's Traffic for C or A should be sent to RouterB
> OSPF should be configured in such a way as to allow the network to
maintain
> reachability in the event of any single link failure.
> Do as little configuration as possible
>
> Scenario Solution:
> See Drawing 1
> http://www.miscenterprises.com/schwantz.gif
> Meets all of the requirements except for the "Do as little work as
possible"
> because you have to manually configure the cost of every link...
> Anyway, you give the FastEthernet Link a low cost, and give the San
> Jose-NewYork link a high cost, but not so high that it causes
traffic from D
> to C to go D-B-A-C.
>
> If I missed any of the objectives, let me know and I'll wiggle the
numbers
> around to make it work.
>
> -Ejay
>
>
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Kevin Schwantz [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
> Sent: Tuesday, May 29, 2001 11:38 AM
> To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> Subject: Re: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
>
>
> Thanks for the recommendations. Firstly, let me explain why I need
the
> routing to behave in such a way. The reasons are purely geographical
and I
> want to reduce latency. Routers A and B are in London and connected
back to
> back via FastEth. Routers C and D are in and SanJose and NewYork
> respectively(Connected to both London routers via FR).
> I certaintly won't want traffic originating from RouterA ( London )
destined
> for RouterD (NewYork) to have to go to SanJose first. It would be
much
> better if the hop is A-B-D instead of A-C-D.
>
> Schwantz
>
> ""EA Louie"" wrote in message
> [EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]...
> > ... or route-map the router D network(s) to go through Router B at
Router
> A
> >
> >
> > ----- Original Message -----
> > From: "Chris Larson"
> > To:
> > Sent: Tuesday, May 29, 2001 7:24 AM
> > Subject: RE: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> >
> >
> > > Place a summary route to null 0 for the networks on Router D on
your
> OSPF
> > > routers and set the metrics appropriately for the summary route
> > >
> > > -----Original Message-----
> > > From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]On
Behalf Of
> > > Kevin Schwantz
> > > Sent: Tuesday, May 29, 2001 10:03 AM
> > > To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > > Subject: Re: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> > >
> > >
> > > routerA routerB
> > > AREA0--------AREA0
> > > | |
> > > routerC routerD
> > > AREA1---------AREA1
> > >
> > >
> > > Since we are on the topic of OSPF, could someone help me out on
the
> > scenario
> > > above?
> > >
> > > Routers A and B have interfaces in Area 0 and Area1. I want
traffic
> from
> > > routerA destined for routerD to go via router B. This is not the
case in
> > my
> > > network because I realise that routerA prefers Intra-Area
routes and
> thus
> > > would route traffic to routerD via routerC.
> > > What tweaks must I make in order to force the traffic from
routerA to
> > > routerD to go via routerB ? Someone suggested building a GRE
tunnel
> > between
> > > routerA and routerB and then configure the tunnel to be in
AREA1.
> > >
> > > Any suggestions?
> > >
> > > Kevin
> > >
> > >
> > > ""W. Alan Robertson"" wrote in message
> > > [EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]...
> > > > Guys,
> > > >
> > > > The actual traffic will not be routed up to area 0... Area 0
has been
> > > > extended
> > > > down to R2, so R2 is now a backbone router. R2 has interfaces
in 3
> > areas
> > > > now:
> > > > Area1, Area2, and Area0 by means of it's virtual link.
> > > >
> > > > Any traffic originating in Area2 destined for Area1 will be
routed
> > > directly
> > > > by
> > > > R2. This satisfies the "Interarea traffic must traverse the
backbone"
> > > rule,
> > > > because R2 *is* a backbone router.
> > > >
> > > > This is not theory... It is fact.
> > > >
> > > > Alan
> > > >
> > > > ----- Original Message -----
> > > > From: "Andrew Larkins"
> > > > To:
> > > > Sent: Monday, May 28, 2001 10:13 AM
> > > > Subject: RE: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> > > >
> > > >
> > > > > agreed....to area 0 then on to the intended area
> > > > >
> > > > > -----Original Message-----
> > > > > From: Circusnuts [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
> > > > > Sent: 28 May 2001 15:50
> > > > > To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > > > > Subject: Re: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> > > > >
> > > > >
> > > > > Chuck- my answer is Yes. The traffic from the Virtual
Linked
> > psuedo-ABR
> > > > > passes back to Area 0, before it's sent onto the intended
Area (even
> > if
> > > > it's
> > > > > directly connected).
> > > > >
> > > > > Phil
> > > > >
> > > > >
> > > > > ----- Original Message -----
> > > > > From: Chuck Larrieu
> > > > > To:
> > > > > Sent: Sunday, May 27, 2001 8:59 PM
> > > > > Subject: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> > > > >
> > > > >
> > > > > > Ever wonder what the CCIE candidates talk about on the
CCIE list?
> > > > > >
> > > > > > The following message came through today. I thought the
bright
> folks
> > > on
> > > > > this
> > > > > > list might be curious, and might want to venture an
answer.
> > > > > >
> > > > > > Begin original question:
> > > > > >
> > > > > > Guys,
> > > > > >
> > > > > > I wonder if there is anybody who remembers the discussion
on
> Virtual
> > > > > > Links in OSPF. It was posted some time ago but I can't
seem to
> find
> > > it.
> > > > > >
> > > > > > The scenario was something like this:
> > > > > > ________ _______ _______
> > > > > > |Area 0 | |Area1| |Area2|
> > > > > > | R0 |--| R1 |--| R2 |
> > > > > > |______| |_____| |_____|
> > > > > >
> > > > > > There is a virtual link from area 2 to Area 0 via Area1.
Traffic
> > needs
> > > to
> > > > > > get to R1 in Area 1 from R2 in Area 2. Assume that the
virtual
> link
> > > has
> > > > to
> > > > > > use R1 (To create the V.Link). Does the traffic flow
passed R1 (in
> > > Area
> > > > 1)
> > > > > > to Area 0 and then back to area 1, or does the actual flow
just to
> > R1
> > > > from
> > > > > > R2.
> > > > > >
> > > > > > I cant remember the conclusion, and I cant seem to find it
on the
> > > > > archives.
> > > > > > Quite interesting issues.
> > > > > >
> > > > > > End of original question
> > > > > >
> > > > > >
> > > > > > Chuck
> > > > > >
> > > > > > One IOS to forward them all.
> > > > > > One IOS to find them.
> > > > > > One IOS to summarize them all
> > > > > > And in the routing table bind them.
> > > > > >
> > > > > > -JRR Chambers-
> > > > > > FAQ, list archives, and subscription info:
> > > > > http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html
> > > > > > Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to
> > [EMAIL PROTECTED]
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