I've been looking at the route-maps as well.
Question:
How can the route-map "matches" tell the difference between the routes
arriving via area 0 and those from area 1. To set the cost of just
those learned from area 1 it would have to be able to tell the
difference.
If you match the RD routes to change the metric wouldn't it change the
metric for both Area 0 and Area 1 RD routes.
Matching the routes then setting the next-hop to RB would give the same
result as the distribute list. (wouldn't it?)
Considering what he wants to do; I would agree that policy routing is
the way to go but do you manipulate the route-map commands?
So far there hasn't been a bullet proof suggestion..
DaveC
"Peter I. Slow, CCNP Voice Specialist" wrote:
>
> Or use a route-map to increase the path cost...
> Otherwise you lose that filtered path as a backup route...
>
> Peter Slow, CCNP Voice Specialist
> Network Engineer
> Planetary Networks
> 535 West 34th Street
> New York, NY
> 10001
> Cell: (516) 782.1535
> Desk: (646) 792.2395
> Mail: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> Fax: (646) 792.2396
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "David Chandler"
> To:
> Sent: Tuesday, May 29, 2001 12:00 PM
> Subject: Re: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
>
> > Have you tried an inboud distribution list on Router A's area 1
> > interfaces. If router A doesn't learn the Router D routes thru those
> > interfaces it should then use Area 0.
> >
> >
> > Worth a try.
> >
> > DaveC
> >
> > Kevin Schwantz wrote:
> > >
> > > Thanks for the recommendations. Firstly, let me explain why I need the
> > > routing to behave in such a way. The reasons are purely geographical
and
> I
> > > want to reduce latency. Routers A and B are in London and connected
back
> to
> > > back via FastEth. Routers C and D are in and SanJose and NewYork
> > > respectively(Connected to both London routers via FR).
> > > I certaintly won't want traffic originating from RouterA ( London )
> > destined
> > > for RouterD (NewYork) to have to go to SanJose first. It would be much
> > > better if the hop is A-B-D instead of A-C-D.
> > >
> > > Schwantz
> > >
> > > ""EA Louie"" wrote in message
> > > [EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]...
> > > > ... or route-map the router D network(s) to go through Router B at
> Router
> > > A
> > > >
> > > >
> > > > ----- Original Message -----
> > > > From: "Chris Larson"
> > > > To:
> > > > Sent: Tuesday, May 29, 2001 7:24 AM
> > > > Subject: RE: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> > > >
> > > >
> > > > > Place a summary route to null 0 for the networks on Router D on
your
> > > OSPF
> > > > > routers and set the metrics appropriately for the summary route
> > > > >
> > > > > -----Original Message-----
> > > > > From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]On Behalf
> Of
> > > > > Kevin Schwantz
> > > > > Sent: Tuesday, May 29, 2001 10:03 AM
> > > > > To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > > > > Subject: Re: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> > > > >
> > > > >
> > > > > routerA routerB
> > > > > AREA0--------AREA0
> > > > > | |
> > > > > routerC routerD
> > > > > AREA1---------AREA1
> > > > >
> > > > >
> > > > > Since we are on the topic of OSPF, could someone help me out on the
> > > > scenario
> > > > > above?
> > > > >
> > > > > Routers A and B have interfaces in Area 0 and Area1. I want
traffic
> > > from
> > > > > routerA destined for routerD to go via router B. This is not the
> case
> > in
> > > > my
> > > > > network because I realise that routerA prefers Intra-Area routes
> and
> > > thus
> > > > > would route traffic to routerD via routerC.
> > > > > What tweaks must I make in order to force the traffic from routerA
> to
> > > > > routerD to go via routerB ? Someone suggested building a GRE tunnel
> > > > between
> > > > > routerA and routerB and then configure the tunnel to be in AREA1.
> > > > >
> > > > > Any suggestions?
> > > > >
> > > > > Kevin
> > > > >
> > > > >
> > > > > ""W. Alan Robertson"" wrote in message
> > > > > [EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]...
> > > > > > Guys,
> > > > > >
> > > > > > The actual traffic will not be routed up to area 0... Area 0 has
> > been
> > > > > > extended
> > > > > > down to R2, so R2 is now a backbone router. R2 has interfaces in
> 3
> > > > areas
> > > > > > now:
> > > > > > Area1, Area2, and Area0 by means of it's virtual link.
> > > > > >
> > > > > > Any traffic originating in Area2 destined for Area1 will be
routed
> > > > > directly
> > > > > > by
> > > > > > R2. This satisfies the "Interarea traffic must traverse the
> > backbone"
> > > > > rule,
> > > > > > because R2 *is* a backbone router.
> > > > > >
> > > > > > This is not theory... It is fact.
> > > > > >
> > > > > > Alan
> > > > > >
> > > > > > ----- Original Message -----
> > > > > > From: "Andrew Larkins"
> > > > > > To:
> > > > > > Sent: Monday, May 28, 2001 10:13 AM
> > > > > > Subject: RE: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> > > > > >
> > > > > >
> > > > > > > agreed....to area 0 then on to the intended area
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > > -----Original Message-----
> > > > > > > From: Circusnuts [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
> > > > > > > Sent: 28 May 2001 15:50
> > > > > > > To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > > > > > > Subject: Re: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > > Chuck- my answer is Yes. The traffic from the Virtual Linked
> > > > psuedo-ABR
> > > > > > > passes back to Area 0, before it's sent onto the intended Area
> > (even
> > > > if
> > > > > > it's
> > > > > > > directly connected).
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > > Phil
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > > ----- Original Message -----
> > > > > > > From: Chuck Larrieu
> > > > > > > To:
> > > > > > > Sent: Sunday, May 27, 2001 8:59 PM
> > > > > > > Subject: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > > > Ever wonder what the CCIE candidates talk about on the CCIE
> list?
> > > > > > > >
> > > > > > > > The following message came through today. I thought the
bright
> > > folks
> > > > > on
> > > > > > > this
> > > > > > > > list might be curious, and might want to venture an answer.
> > > > > > > >
> > > > > > > > Begin original question:
> > > > > > > >
> > > > > > > > Guys,
> > > > > > > >
> > > > > > > > I wonder if there is anybody who remembers the discussion on
> > > Virtual
> > > > > > > > Links in OSPF. It was posted some time ago but I can't seem
to
> > > find
> > > > > it.
> > > > > > > >
> > > > > > > > The scenario was something like this:
> > > > > > > > ________ _______ _______
> > > > > > > > |Area 0 | |Area1| |Area2|
> > > > > > > > | R0 |--| R1 |--| R2 |
> > > > > > > > |______| |_____| |_____|
> > > > > > > >
> > > > > > > > There is a virtual link from area 2 to Area 0 via Area1.
> Traffic
> > > > needs
> > > > > to
> > > > > > > > get to R1 in Area 1 from R2 in Area 2. Assume that the
virtual
> > > link
> > > > > has
> > > > > > to
> > > > > > > > use R1 (To create the V.Link). Does the traffic flow passed
R1
> > (in
> > > > > Area
> > > > > > 1)
> > > > > > > > to Area 0 and then back to area 1, or does the actual flow
> just
> > to
> > > > R1
> > > > > > from
> > > > > > > > R2.
> > > > > > > >
> > > > > > > > I cant remember the conclusion, and I cant seem to find it on
> the
> > > > > > > archives.
> > > > > > > > Quite interesting issues.
> > > > > > > >
> > > > > > > > End of original question
> > > > > > > >
> > > > > > > >
> > > > > > > > Chuck
> > > > > > > >
> > > > > > > > One IOS to forward them all.
> > > > > > > > One IOS to find them.
> > > > > > > > One IOS to summarize them all
> > > > > > > > And in the routing table bind them.
> > > > > > > >
> > > > > > > > -JRR Chambers-
> > > > > > > > FAQ, list archives, and subscription info:
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[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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