The first answer would be correct, because it would require IP subnet-zero
to be running. This command allows the router to use the zero subnet (subnet
with a base address of 0.0) to be used as a valid subnet. In this example,
you have 4 bits of subnetting, which allows for 16
sub-networks(theoretically if the .255 and .0 subnets are valid, but then a
again, thats what we are discussing) with 4094 valid hosts per subnet. The
first valid subnet would be 156.100.0.0-156.100.15.255 with a base address
of 156.100.0.0. Some older network equipment doesn't allow for the use of
the zero-subnet, as it is seen as a base(even though it isn't . 0s in the
host=base address) or even stranger a brodcast(some older gear from other
manufacturers used all 0s as a broadcast, rather than all 1s. Just remember,
we are talking about a zero in the network portion, not the host portion.
Hope this explanation helps.
-----Original Message-----
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]On Behalf Of
Teresa Presutto
Sent: Wednesday, August 29, 2001 5:01 AM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: ccna companion question [7:17648]
CNNA Companion question (obviously I read the answer and I know the command
,
but I would like to know why...)
Which of the following addresses would be require the use of ip subnet-zero
command?
156.100.11.37 255.255.240.0
131.64.16.133 255.255.255.128
192.168.36.10 255.255.255.0
205.100.16.3 255.255.255.0
Ciao e grazie,
Teresa
Message Posted at:
http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=17653&t=17648
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