Unless you're bridging, ARP doesn't function here the way I _think_ you
think it does.
If PC2 receives an incoming ICMP echo request and it wants to generate
a response, it first compares the network portion of the destination
address to its own subnet. If you're not bridging they will be
different. In that case, PC2 will not send an ARP request for PC1, it
will simply forward the packet to the default gateway.
Of course, at some point PC2 will send an ARP request to get the
hardware address of Router B, but it will never need to know the
hardware address of PC1.
Now, if you're bridging then PC1 and PC2 should be on the same subnet
and neither would require a default gateway to speak to the other.
HTH,
John
>>> "Henrique Duarte" 5/13/02 2:50:43 PM >>>
OK Networking gurus. I hope you can help me with this easy one:
e0 e1 e0 e1
PC1-------router A----------routerB---------PC2
PC1 can ping routerB (e1)
PC2 can ping routerA (e0)
PC1 cannot ping PC2
PC2 has NO default gateway (and is not supposed to have one). I've
added a
static arp entry on PC2: PC1's IP address point to routerB e1's MAC
address. Why do I need the default gateway even though I already
configured
a static arp entry on PC2?
Thanks in advance,
-H
Message Posted at:
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