John,
thanks for the feedback.
So PC2 doesn't have a default gateway configured and will send a broadcast
for the address of PC1.  Since router B is on the same subnet and  "knows"
where PC1 is, shouldn't it respond as a proxy?

-H

----- Original Message -----
From: "John Neiberger" 
To: 
Sent: Monday, May 13, 2002 5:13 PM
Subject: Re: ARP problems, anyone? [7:44108]


> Unless you're bridging, ARP doesn't function here the way I _think_ you
> think it does.
>
> If PC2 receives an incoming ICMP echo request and it wants to generate
> a response, it first compares the network portion of the destination
> address to its own subnet.  If you're not bridging they will be
> different.  In that case, PC2 will not send an ARP request for PC1, it
> will simply forward the packet to the default gateway.
>
> Of course, at some point PC2 will send an ARP request to get the
> hardware address of Router B, but it will never need to know the
> hardware address of PC1.
>
> Now, if you're bridging then PC1 and PC2 should be on the same subnet
> and neither would require a default gateway to speak to the other.
>
> HTH,
> John
>
> >>> "Henrique Duarte"  5/13/02 2:50:43 PM >>>
> OK Networking gurus.  I hope you can help me with this easy one:
>
>
>
>                 e0         e1            e0      e1
> PC1-------router A----------routerB---------PC2
>
>
> PC1 can ping routerB (e1)
> PC2 can ping routerA (e0)
>
> PC1 cannot ping PC2
>
>
> PC2 has NO default gateway (and is not supposed to have one).  I've
> added a
> static arp entry on PC2:  PC1's IP address point to routerB e1's MAC
> address.  Why do I need the default gateway even though I already
> configured
> a static arp entry on PC2?
>
> Thanks in advance,
>
> -H




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