Guys, im going completely mental over here! Im afraid my brain is going to go BOOM in a second! Heres the thing; Say you have 2 routers, with their respective routing tables right. Router-A have these networks in its routing tabel: 192.168.2.0 192.168.3.0 192.168.4.0 And Rouer-B has these: 192.168.3.0 192.168.8.0 192.168.5.0 Now, what makes me crazy here is that I know that by looking at this, I can tell that Router-A and Router-B have directly connected networks, and therefore in Router-Bs routing tabel all of Router-As networks + Router-Bs networks will show. But! Now this is a BIG BUT! If, say Router-A has the as number 100 (That is router igrp 100), and Router-B has the as number 101 (router igrp 101). Then they are NOT directly connected and therefor will not share routing table's right??? Or?? I mean, the as numbers decide this if im not entirelly wrong (which I most def could be) Please, like ive said im going totally bananas over this and need some help. If in fact Router-Bs routing table will show both Router-As and its own networks, then. Is this because of the use of IGRP? Cause im reading the Wendel Odom book here, and it says, I quote; "The following list summarizes the behavior of a router that uses the RIP-1 or IGRP distance vector routing protocols: -Routers add DIRECTLY CONNECTED subnets to their routing tables. Routers do not need to run a routing protocol to learn connected routes, but conneced subnets routes are advertised to neighboring routers by the routing protocol". Ok, this I know. But, im confused about the as numbers here (100 vs 101) Because of this I would figure that Yes, Router-Bs routing table would normally show us both Routers networks (being directly connected and all) BUT, not when the as numbers are different. Guys, am I totally missing the point here? Please help me figure this one out! Im loosing it :-( Morgan mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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