nothing bad will happen unless you have overlapping subnets.

idle curiousity - in a situation like this, why OSPF as opposed to EIGRP or
RIPv2 or ODR, for that matter?

""bergenpeak""  wrote in message
[EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]...
> Ran across some text in Doyle's V1 that confirms JMcL's comment
> below (page 462, Partioned Areas section).
>
> So, the next question for the group is the following:
>
> OSPF doesn't track the area information once the routing information
> gets injected into the backbone.  Suppose you have a network with N
> different physical locations and each will be configured as sub-area.
> Each sub-area connects to the backbone via it's own ABR.
>
> Is there any reason to use different area numbers in this situation?
>
> From an Ops perspective (say where you have tools to go out and touch
> the configs on the ABR and sub-area routers), using the same area number
> will simplify the configs and tool logic.
>
> So, is there some benefit to actually use different sub-area IDs?
>
> Thanks
>
>
>
>
>
> > bergenpeak wrote:
> > >
> > > Suppose I have two ABRs that are supporting the same sub-area.
> > > The ABRs are not directly connected, but can reach each other
> > > through links inside the sub-area.
> > >
> > > Suppose a link fails causing the two ABRs to not have
> > > connectivity
> > > through the sub-area.  The sub-area is therefore partitioned.
> > >
> > > Suppose the ABRs are not doing route summarization.
> > >
> > > Will this cause a problem from the backbone perspective?
> > >
> > > Will this cause a problem for traffic which needs to flow from
> > > one side of the sub-area to the other part of the sub-area?
> > >
> > > Thanks
> > >
> > >
> >
> > I don't believe it will cause any problems.  I'm not going to look it up
> > right now, but I'm sure I've researched this one before.  As long as
there
> > is no summarisation (or no overlapping summarisation), the two
partitions
> > are simply treated as two sub-areas.
> >
> > JMcL




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