That is why I am asking the question - it is unclear!  Let me try it this
way:

If we take the textbook Internet setup, we would have an

outside router - BGP
firewall
inside router - OSPF ASBR to BGP
core router - OSPF backbone

On the inside router, would I create an ASBR with area 0 defines on the
inside to core connection

or

Would I create an new OSPF area to define the connection between the inside
router and the core router?


There are several of these types of connections in the larger network, and
there is an expectation that if one of these goes down the OSPF and BGP will
figure it out and shift traffic to the working connections.

""Priscilla Oppenheimer""  wrote in message
[EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]...
I'm afraid your question isn't clear.

By definition, an ASBR connects two unlike networks, one that is running
OSPF and one that isn't. So, the ASBR will connect to the Internet in your
example.

Steve Ringley wrote:
>
> I have an OSPF network, and I have my Internet connections.  Do
> I:
>
> ASBR where traffic goes from area 0 to the Internet

Is that where your Internet connection is? In area 0? Often, it is, and
that's where your ASBR will be.

>
> or
>
> ASBR where traffic goes to an area x then to the Internet?

Goes from where to an Area x and then to the Internet?? This is where your
question gets unclear. But if you are considering putting an ASBR between
Area x and Area 0, then that doesn't make sense. It's not an ASBR because
it's connecting two OSPF networks. If your Internet connection is in Area X,
you will have an ASBR that connects the OSPF world to the Internet, sitting
on the edge of Area X.

Are you asking if the ASBR should be in Area 0? I think the answer is yes,
if it can, but sometimes that's simply not possible on large internetworks
with multiple egress points.

If I completely missed what you're getting at, sorry!

Priscilla


>
> This was never clear to me from my reading.




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