Not sure I have this all sorted out correctly. Perhaps those with a bit more experience might add their wisdom, not to mention their corrections.
The ospf virtual link being what it is, it follows rules similar to any other interface. It does appear, though, that in terms of structure, it looks something like this: ( commands under the ospf process ) area X authentication area X virtual-link y.y.y.y authentication area X virtual-link y.y.y.y authentication-key WORD where X is the non zero area number over which the virtual link transits. In other words, for purposes of structure, the virtual link is not really part of area 0. It is a point-to-point link that is part of the non zero transit area. Am I understanding this correctly? I have a setup working, where the area 0 authentication is simple and the transit area authentication is MD5, and no adjacency is formed across the virtual link with simple authentication, but comes up just fine with MD5. Any comments are appreciated. -- TANSTAAFL "there ain't no such thing as a free lunch" Message Posted at: http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=65628&t=65628 -------------------------------------------------- FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
