-Caveat Lector-
I have asked this question before and never got an answer, just bashed, so I
will try asking it a different way. Some time back a man was arrested for
the sexual battery of his 4 year old stepdaughter while his wife was at the
hospital giving birth to his own natural child. This man is obviously
heterosexual thence the wife giving birth but yet he raped and sodomized a
small child so does that make him a pedophile only? I really do not
understand this. Both homos and heteros commit acts of pedophilia. Do you
mean that over-rides their other sexual orientation and if so, why and what
determines which category into which they belong? I am sincerely asking
this and not trying to instigate a day's long flame war.
Amelia
----- Original Message -----
From: "Ynr Chyldz Wyld" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Saturday, October 07, 2000 4:43 PM
Subject: Re: [CTRL] Hetro Scout Shenanigans!
> What you don't seem to grasp is the FACT that there are homosexuals, there
are heterosexuals, and then there
> are pedophiles. Three SEPARATE groups.
>
> Pedophiles are a separate group from either homosexuals or heterosexuals.
A homosexual is attracted to adults
> of their same sex. Heterosexuals are attracted to adults of the opposite
sex. Pedophiles are attracted to
> children. Pedophiles who molests children of the same sex are no more
represenative of the homosexual
> community, than pedophiles who molest children of the opposite sex are
representative of the heterosexual
> community.
>
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