-Caveat Lector-
From: "Amelia" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> I have asked this question before and never got an answer, just bashed, so I
> will try asking it a different way. Some time back a man was arrested for
> the sexual battery of his 4 year old stepdaughter while his wife was at the
> hospital giving birth to his own natural child. This man is obviously
> heterosexual thence the wife giving birth but yet he raped and sodomized a
> small child so does that make him a pedophile only? I really do not
> understand this. Both homos and heteros commit acts of pedophilia. Do you
> mean that over-rides their other sexual orientation
Yes.
> and if so, why and what
> determines which category into which they belong?
Let me ask you this: do you consider this man representative of all adult
heterosexual men?
If not, then an argument can not be made that a male pedophile who sexually molests
boys is representative of
all adult homosexual men.
Some pedophiles have adult partners. That does not change the fact that they are
pedophiles, which puts them
in a separate category than the rank and file of adult heterosexuals or adult
homosexuals.
In the case you mention, the man is a pedophile, plain and simple, one who just
happens to have an adult
partner. That his partner happens to be of the opposite sex does not make him any
more a normal heterosexual
than if his partner was of the same sex would make him a normal homosexual.
June
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