Re: 2x2 tables in epi. Why Fisher test?

[Elliot Cramer]

In sci.stat.consult Ronald Bloom <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
Herman as usual is absolutely correct; the validity of the Fisher test is
analagous to the validity of regression tests which are derived
conditional on x but, since the distribution does not involve x, are valid
unconditionally even if the x's are random.


Incidentally, if one randomizes to get an exact p value, the Fisher test
is uniformly most powerful. Herman can tell us if this is for all three
cases.


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