Teresa from Oregon <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in message [EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]... > I was doing a little mental calisthenics today and got myself confused > about how this test is calculated. My (perhaps naive) understanding is > that all potential sets of results from, say, a 2x2 table are > calculated and then the exact probability of the actual observed > result occurring simply by chance is determined. This is why there is > no associated test statistic, just p. > > My question is: If the test is distributionless, wouldn't the > probability of all unique results be equal?
I think you may have a misunderstanding. The test isn't "distributionless". Glen . . ================================================================= Instructions for joining and leaving this list, remarks about the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES, and archives are available at: . http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/ . =================================================================
