On Wed, 13 Aug 2003 10:07:42 +1000, "abc" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> Hi All, > > First of All, I am not a Statistics Expert by myself, however, I would like > to raise another angle of this issue. > > If instead of divide (or partition) into two separate normal distribution, I > would > do this into n separate normal distribution where n is the number of points > constituting the original distribution N(50,5). IMHO this attempt doesn't make sense. A normal distribution is continuous and not constituted by some finite or countable number of points. For a normal distribution with positive variance any interval [a,b] a<b has a positive probability. But there is a chance they I didn't understand what you mean... Regards Horst . . ================================================================= Instructions for joining and leaving this list, remarks about the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES, and archives are available at: . http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/ . =================================================================
