Vijay Arya <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in message news:<[EMAIL PROTECTED]>...
> Hello,
> 
> I have the following problem.
> 
> -----------------------------
> 
> A user T has a coin with head or tails and we want to estimate the
> probability of head.
> 
> when user A goes to T, he tosses the coin Na times giving a binary 1010...
> trace (1=heads, 0=tails).
> 
> when user B goes to T, he tosses the coin Nb times giving a binary
> 1010...trace (1=heads, 0=tails).
> 
> Now,
> 
> A takes the mean Mua = (1+0+1+...)/Na  (essentially the probability of
> heads)
> 
> B does the same, Mub = (1+0+1....)/Nb
> 
> I want to test the hypothesis
> 
> H0: Mua not equals Mub
> H1: Mua equals Mub

Your hypotheses are the wrong way around.

> I wanted to know if this falls under "inference from two
> dependent or independent samples"

Can you describe a way in which you think that the observations 
from the two samples might be dependent?

Glen
.
.
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