In the non-mathematical world the word "equivalent" means "having similar or identical effects" which allows for not _always_ being _identical_ in _all_ respects. That is the context for usage in the Democracy Chronicles article.

Even in a rigorous academic mathematical context, "equivalent" means "having virtually identical or corresponding parts." In this context VoteFair popularity ranking is "virtually identical" to the Condorcet-Kemeny method because the word "virtually" allows for the _extremely_ _rare_ cases in which there are more than six candidates in the Smith set (which can possibly cause a difference in which candidate is declared the winner), and allows for an election involving, say, 30 candidates that _can_ (but may not) result in different full rankings between the two methods.

If I had instead claimed that the two methods are "mathematically the same," then of course that would have been inappropriate.

Richard Fobes



On 4/24/2012 6:11 AM, Andy Jennings wrote:
On Mon, Apr 23, 2012 at 11:28 PM, Richard Fobes
<electionmeth...@votefair.org <mailto:electionmeth...@votefair.org>> wrote:

    On 4/23/2012 12:05 PM, Kristofer Munsterhjelm wrote:

        On 04/22/2012 05:07 PM, Richard Fobes wrote:

            The core of the system is VoteFair popularity ranking, which is
            mathematically equivalent to the Condorcet-Kemeny method,
            which is
            one of the methods supported by the "Declaration of
            Election-Method
            Reform Advocates."


        You said there are ballot sets for which the Kemeny method and
        VoteFair
        provides different winners. How, then, can VoteFair be
        /mathematically/
        equivalent? You say the differences don't matter in practice,
        but for
        the method to be mathematically equivalent, wouldn't the mapping
        have to
        be completely identical?


    First of all, in the context of a publication that is read by
    non-mathematicians (which is what the Democracy Chronicles is) the
    word "equivalent" does not refer to a rigorous "sameness."


When you qualify it as "mathematically equivalent", it definitely does
refer to a rigorous "sameness".

Perhaps you should say "essentially equivalent".

~ Andy

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