I read in !emc-pstc that David Heald <davehe...@mediaone.net> wrote (in
<3bf037f8.c93b8...@mediaone.net>) about '80/80 rule for euro
compliance?', on Mon, 12 Nov 2001:
> I remember hearing somewhere (& it seems that I found the answer
>somewhere but I can't remember) that there is a stipulation for European
>compliance that one should have 80% certainty that 80% of one's products
>are compliant.  I have no idea where this idea originally came from or
>what standards it may apply to. 
>
>Can anyone out there help me out?

It's not peculiar to Europe, it's in many CISPR *international*
standards, and thus appears in the corresponding (but not necessarily
identical) EN 550xx series of European standards. 
-- 
Regards, John Woodgate, OOO - Own Opinions Only. http://www.jmwa.demon.co.uk 
Eat mink and be dreary!

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