On 15 Jun 2013, at 21:57, meekerdb wrote:
On 6/15/2013 12:40 AM, chris peck wrote:
Hi Rog
As you have described them a materialist could not be a
"combination of both" rationalism and empiricism, because you have
them as diametrically opposed. If "reason alone" is the source of
knowledge, then experience isn't and can't be combined to be.
Besides, Materialism is an ontological theory and doesn't give much
of a hoot about how knowledge is aquired.
More to the point neither rationalism nor empiricism are branches
of intuitionism.
Chris Peck is right here.
The moment of inspiration Penrose attributes to the mind connecting
with a realm of ideas is neither an act of reason nor sensory
experience. Moreover, If logic is to be "deductive" then, by
definition, conclusions must never follow from unexplainable leaps
of intuition.
Where does the persuasive power of logic come from? Why do you
believe, "Either X or not-X" is true? Is it not a matter of
intuition?
Yes, but not in the sense of the intuitionist.
Isn't logic just an attempt to formalize intuitive reasoning.
Only reasoning, where the intuition is used only in the choice of the
axiom, and not in the reasoning.
Basically intuitionism reject the idea that there is an independent
reality such that A v ~A applies to it. They accept only ~ ~(A V ~A).
If we limit reality to sigma_1 truth, like in the comp TOE, there is
no genuine difference between intuitionism and platonism. But an
intuitionist should still say no to the doctor, as the FPI is not
constructive. "Washington V Moscow" needs a non-intuitionist "OR".
Bruno
Brent
If they do they have not been logically deduced, have they? And
infact that is Penrose's point : leaps of intuition can not be
modelled computationally. logic, ofcourse, can be. since,
allegedly, minds can grope for and master facts beyond the scope of
deduction, they must be qualitatively different from computer
programs which can only deduce things logically.
You really seem to have things back to front in this post.
Regards
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