Unfortunately, the thread about AUDA and its relation to pronouncs got mixed up with another thread, and thus got delete on my computer.
Picking up from where we left off, I'm still trying to see the relationship between Bp, Bp&p, 1-I, 3-I and the plain ordinary I pronoun in English. I understand Bp can be read as "I can prove p", and "Bp&p" as "I know p". But in the case, the difference between Bp and Bp&p is entirely in the verb, the pronoun "I" stays the same, AFAICT. Also, switching viewpoints, one could equally say the Bp can be read as "he can prove p", and Bp&p as "he knows p", so the person order of the pronoun is also not relevant. Cheers -- ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- Prof Russell Standish Phone 0425 253119 (mobile) Principal, High Performance Coders Visiting Professor of Mathematics hpco...@hpcoders.com.au University of New South Wales http://www.hpcoders.com.au ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Everything List" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com. To post to this group, send email to everything-list@googlegroups.com. Visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list. For more options, visit https://groups.google.com/groups/opt_out.