Unfortunately, the thread about AUDA and its relation to pronouncs got
mixed up with another thread, and thus got delete on my computer.

Picking up from where we left off, I'm still trying to see the
relationship between Bp, Bp&p, 1-I, 3-I and the plain ordinary I
pronoun in English.

I understand Bp can be read as "I can prove p", and "Bp&p" as "I know
p". But in the case, the difference between Bp and Bp&p is entirely in
the verb, the pronoun "I" stays the same, AFAICT.

Also, switching viewpoints, one could equally say the Bp can be read
as "he can prove p", and Bp&p as "he knows p", so the person order of
the pronoun is also not relevant.

Cheers

-- 

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Prof Russell Standish                  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics      hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales          http://www.hpcoders.com.au
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