On Thu, Oct 10, 2013 at 06:25:45PM -0700, meekerdb wrote: > So there are infinitely many identical universes preceding a > measurement. How are these universes distinct from one another? > Do they divide into two infinite subsets on a binary measurement, or > do infinitely many come into existence in order that some > branch-counting measure produces the right proportion? Do you not > see any problems with assigning a measure to infinite countable > subsets (are there more even numbers that square numbers?).
But infinite subsets in question will contain an uncountable number of elements. That is why I'm not sure that problems with assigning measures to countably infinite sets (such as your example above re even and square numbers) are really such a problem. -- ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- Prof Russell Standish Phone 0425 253119 (mobile) Principal, High Performance Coders Visiting Professor of Mathematics hpco...@hpcoders.com.au University of New South Wales http://www.hpcoders.com.au ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Everything List" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com. To post to this group, send email to everything-list@googlegroups.com. Visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list. For more options, visit https://groups.google.com/groups/opt_out.
