On Mon, Oct 21, 2013 at 03:52:14PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote: > > On 20 Oct 2013, at 23:15, Russell Standish wrote: > > >On Sun, Oct 20, 2013 at 06:22:15PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote: > >> > >>On 20 Oct 2013, at 12:01, Russell Standish wrote: > >> > >>> > >>>Obviously, one cannot prove []p & p, for very many statements, ie > >>> > >>>[]p & p does not entail []([o]p) > >> > >>[]p -> [][]p OK? > >> > > > >Why? This is not obvious. It translates as being able to prove that > >you can prove stuff when you can prove it. > > You are right, this is not so easy to prove. It follows from the > "provable sigma_1 completeness", that is the fact that if p is a > sigma_1 formula, then Peano Arithmetic can prove p -> Bp. (That is > not easy to prove, but it is done in Hilbert-Bernays, also in the > books by Boolos). It is the hard part of the second incompleteness > theorem. It presupposes some induction axioms, like in Peano > Arithmetic (PA). > Then Bp is itself a sigma_1 arithmetical proposition, so []p -> [][]p. >
i.e If p is the result of a computer program, then there exists a program that proves p is correct? > > > >And thus you've proven that for everything you know, you can know that > >you know it. This seems wrong, as the 4 colour theorem indicates. > > I would not trust my intuition about this. > In choosing axioms, intuition is all we have to go by. But you say below that 4 is in fact a redundant axiom ... which makes it not so clear cut. > > > >We > >can prove the 4 colour theorem by means of a computer program, and it > >may indeed be correct, so that we Theatetically know the 4 colour > >theorem is true, but we cannot prove the proof is correct (at least at > >this stage, proving program correctness is practically impossible). > > It should be easy once we have a concrete formal proof. As far as I > know, we don't have this for the 4 colour theorem. But once we have > such proofs, it should be trivial to prove that the proof exists, > making []p -> [][]p easy to prove for the particular case of p = 4-color. How does it make it easy? > > A correct machine is automatically Löbian if she is sigma_1 > complete, and has enough induction axioms to prove its own sigma_1 > completeness (in the sense of proving all formula p -> []p, for p > sigma_1). > > In fact "p-> []p" characterizes sigma_1 completeness (by a result by > Albert Visser), and that is why to get the proba on the UD*, we use > the intensional nuance []p & <>t (= proba) starting from G extended > with the axiom "p-> []p" (limiting the proposition to the UD). > proba? -- ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- Prof Russell Standish Phone 0425 253119 (mobile) Principal, High Performance Coders Visiting Professor of Mathematics hpco...@hpcoders.com.au University of New South Wales http://www.hpcoders.com.au ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Everything List" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com. To post to this group, send email to everything-list@googlegroups.com. Visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list. For more options, visit https://groups.google.com/groups/opt_out.
