On 1/16/2014 1:48 AM, LizR wrote:
On 16 January 2014 20:00, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net <mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>>
wrote:
On 1/15/2014 7:08 PM, LizR wrote:
On 16 January 2014 14:11, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net
<mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> wrote:
You can do that (in fact it may have been done). You have two emitters
with
polarizers and a detector at which you post-select only those particles
that
arrive and form a singlet. Then you will find that the correlation
counts for
that subset violates Bell's inequality for polarizer settings of 30,
60, 120deg.
I assume that means Price's (and Bell's) assumption that violations of
Bell's
inequality can be explained locally and realistically with time symmetry is
definitely wrong...?
?? Why do you conclude that? It's the time-reverse of the EPR that
violated BI.
Because as I (perhaps mis-) understand it, Price claims that we need to take both past
AND future boundary conditions into account to explain EPR with time symmetry. If we can
explain it with only a forward in time or backward in time explanation, then we aren't
using both.
But in the reverse EPR we are in effect using both past and future boundary conditions.
At the emitters we set the polarizers - that's the past boundary condition. At the single
detector we post-select only those incoming pairs that form a net-zero spin; so that's a
future boundary condition.
This is only a 'thought experiment' because I don't think there's any practical way to
capture and test pairs for net-zero spin. Note that you must NOT measure the spins, you
have to select the net-zero pair without measuring either one.
Brent
Or I may be missing the point. That often happens. Now that I think about it, I probably
am. I shall go into the garden and eat worms, and while I tuck in maybe you could
explain to me whether I jumped to completely the wrong conclusion.
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